I appreciated the way you clearly stated the reason behind Spearman’s correlation based on ranked values instead of raw data. This is a prime example as to why we see the Pearson correlation used more often. What I believe gets lost in the explanation with these two correlation is the range value being -1 to but we do not explain how the value at 0 indicates no association between the two variables. For me, it was not formally introduced that way and I would often get caught up in the range and not the specific value.
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